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I'm surprised that some people defend it. Do they get their Spanish history from Franco-era textbooks or from Pam Geller? I'm not an expert on Spanish history, but still...
From several posts starting here: http://discussion.guardian.co.uk/comment-permalink/22904370
As in the land? Or as in the Spanish people, many of whom were Muslim? Or do you think the Muslims, and Jews, and non-Roman Christians weren’t really Spanish people? Spain was oppressed by its nobility, of course, like the rest of Europe and the Mediterranean.
Nobody expects someone to try to defend the Spanish Inquisition! The Inquisition itself was founded after the fall of Granada, and can hardly be counted as a ‘reaction’ to supposed Muslim ‘oppression.’ It was an instrument of oppression and genocide. The predecessors of the Inquisition go back before the Islamic conquest. So neither way are your claims true.
I am not an expert on the history of Spain, but I seem to have a better idea of it than you.
In the century before the Islamic conquest, the Catholic monarchy had oppressed Jews and non-Roman Christians. During one of the recurring civil wars, an Islamic army landed in Spain, and conquered most of the country. At first the Islamic rulers were relatively tolerant. Later some other Islamic rulers would oppress Christians and not-their-sect Muslims. Gradually Christian rulers reconquered Spain. In some cases, they required Spanish Muslims to convert or go into exile.
In religious terms, there were periods of toleration and periods of oppression on both sides. It makes as little sense to speak of 779 years of Muslim oppression [including periods where most of Spain was under Catholic rule, and periods of toleration] as it would to speak of 1381 years of Catholic oppression [including periods where most of Spain was under Muslim rule, and periods of toleration]. It’s unfair to both.
From several posts starting here: http://discussion.guardian.co.uk/comment-permalink/22904370
Spain WAS oppressed for 800 years by Muslims.
As in the land? Or as in the Spanish people, many of whom were Muslim? Or do you think the Muslims, and Jews, and non-Roman Christians weren’t really Spanish people? Spain was oppressed by its nobility, of course, like the rest of Europe and the Mediterranean.
The inquisition was a reaction to this oppression.
Nobody expects someone to try to defend the Spanish Inquisition! The Inquisition itself was founded after the fall of Granada, and can hardly be counted as a ‘reaction’ to supposed Muslim ‘oppression.’ It was an instrument of oppression and genocide. The predecessors of the Inquisition go back before the Islamic conquest. So neither way are your claims true.
who is trying to justify genocide? i am just pointing out that the inquisition did not simply appear in a vacuum.
do you actually know the history of spain? it was conquered and oppressed by muslims.
it took the spanish 800 years to reclaim their land after the conquest happened.
I am not an expert on the history of Spain, but I seem to have a better idea of it than you.
In the century before the Islamic conquest, the Catholic monarchy had oppressed Jews and non-Roman Christians. During one of the recurring civil wars, an Islamic army landed in Spain, and conquered most of the country. At first the Islamic rulers were relatively tolerant. Later some other Islamic rulers would oppress Christians and not-their-sect Muslims. Gradually Christian rulers reconquered Spain. In some cases, they required Spanish Muslims to convert or go into exile.
In religious terms, there were periods of toleration and periods of oppression on both sides. It makes as little sense to speak of 779 years of Muslim oppression [including periods where most of Spain was under Catholic rule, and periods of toleration] as it would to speak of 1381 years of Catholic oppression [including periods where most of Spain was under Muslim rule, and periods of toleration]. It’s unfair to both.
